1st Kings Chapter 1 verse 35 Holy Bible

ASV 1stKings 1:35

Then ye shall come up after him, and he shall come and sit upon my throne; for he shall be king in my stead; and I have appointed him to be prince over Israel and over Judah.
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BBE 1stKings 1:35

Then come up after him and he will come in and take his place on the seat of my kingdom; for he is to be king in my place, and I have given orders that he is to be ruler over Israel and over Judah.
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DARBY 1stKings 1:35

And ye shall come up after him, that he may come and sit on my throne; for he shall reign in my stead, and I have appointed him to be ruler over Israel and over Judah.
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KJV 1stKings 1:35

Then ye shall come up after him, that he may come and sit upon my throne; for he shall be king in my stead: and I have appointed him to be ruler over Israel and over Judah.
read chapter 1 in KJV

WBT 1stKings 1:35

Then ye shall come up after him, that he may come and sit upon my throne; for he shall be king in my stead: and I have appointed him to be ruler over Israel and over Judah.
read chapter 1 in WBT

WEB 1stKings 1:35

Then you shall come up after him, and he shall come and sit on my throne; for he shall be king in my place; and I have appointed him to be prince over Israel and over Judah.
read chapter 1 in WEB

YLT 1stKings 1:35

and ye have come up after him, and he hath come in and hath sat on my throne, and he doth reign in my stead, and him I have appointed to be leader over Israel, and over Judah.'
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Pulpit Commentary

Pulpit CommentaryVerse 35. - Then ye shall come up (after him [not in the LXX. Cod. Vat.] that he may [Hebrews and he shall] come and sit upon my throne [in every possible way his accession was to be proclaimed and confirmed], for he shall be king in my stead [David i.e., virtually abdicates in Solomon's favour. Cf. vers. 46, 51, 53; 1 Chronicles 29:23, 26], and I have appointed him [he and him are emphasised in the original] to be ruler over Israel and over Judah. It is possible, as Bahr thinks, that Israel and Judah were severally mentioned because David had once been king over Judah only, and because Israel had gone over to the side of Absalom. It is more probable, however, that "Israel and Judah" was even then the current designation of the two component parts of the realm (see 2 Samuel 2:9, 10; 2 Samuel 19:11, 41, etc.). Besides, we can hardly suppose that the historian has in every case, though he probably has in this, preserved the exact words of the speaker; and it need cause us no surprise had he put into David's mouth the phraseology of a later age. In the nature of things he can only give us the substance of conversations such as these.

Ellicott's Commentary

Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers(35) Over Israel and over Judah.--The phrase clearly refers to the distinction, already tending to become a division, between Israel and Judah in relation to the monarchy. In the case of David himself, it may be observed that the record of his accession to royalty over Israel contains the notice of "a league" made by him with the elders of Israel (2Samuel 5:3), to which there is nothing to correspond in the account of his becoming king over Judah (2Samuel 2:4). This perhaps indicates from the beginning a less absolute rule over the other tribes. Certainly the history of the rebellion of Absalom (2Samuel 15:10; 2Samuel 15:13; 2Samuel 18:6-7), the disputes about the restoration of David (2Samuel 19:41-43), and the attempt of Sheba to take advantage of them (2Samuel 20:1-2), show a looser allegiance of Israel than of Judah to the house of David. . . .